Today’s passage contains the theme of the
Epistle to the Romans. The Holy Spirit
reveals through the writing of Paul the answer to the great mystery: how could
God justify sinners without infringing on His own holiness? The gospel reveals God’s righteousness, and
this is explained in detail in Romans 1-8.
The gospel is from “faith to faith.” Jesus is
the originator (“author”) and perfector (“finisher”) of our faith
(Heb. 12:2). Romans shows that He and
His work on the cross are the means both of our justification (being declared righteous before God; Rom. 1-4) and
our sanctification (growing in
righteousness until we are conformed to His image; Rom. 5-8).
It is common to see a major division in the
book between chapters 8 and 9. Some
commentators have even written on the first 8 but not the rest. We hold that Chapters 9-16 are closely
connected to Ch. 1-8. Each needs/depends
on the other. For example, Romans 6
(esp. v11-14) anticipates Romans 12:1-2 and the applications that follow. The former shows that we are dead to sin and
that presenting our bodies to God for righteousness is the only sensible thing
to do. The latter picks up that theme
and then applies it in several practical areas.
But what about Romans 9-11 and the discussion of
Israel? Is this related to Chapters
1-8? Is it a mere parenthesis that could be left out without affecting our thinking or
living? I believe they are connected and
quite essential. Rom. 9-11 answers a
question raised throughout the early chapters.
·
Paul hints at it in saying for the Jew first and also for the Greek (cf. 2:9f).
·
After identifying both Jews and Gentiles as
sinners Paul posed the question, “What advantage then has the Jew” (3:1)?
·
God is God of both the Jews and Gentiles (3:29).
·
The Law of Moses was shown to be incapable of
making one just before God, either in our position or practice (7:1-6; 8:2-4).
Each of these raises
the question of Israel’s place as God’s chosen
people. Is God finished with
her? Has she forfeited God’s covenant with
Abraham?
Some might consider
this merely an early church
question. After all, from 70AD on there
was no “nation”. Thinkers from Augustine
to the Reformers wrote off any literal future for Israel by spiritualizing the
Old Testament promises of a land and nation and making them the possession of the Church.
I would maintain this is, in fact, a question
for all ages. The question goes to the
faithfulness of God. If Israel’s
rejection of Christ has resulted in the loss of God’s gracious promise, then it
was not of grace but works! And if God
is not keeping His gracious covenant, then how can one count on the gracious
promises of Romans 1-8? Our confidence
is that a careful study of the last half of Romans will be every bit as profitable (2 Tim. 3:16-17) as the first
half.
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